Ancient genomics support deep divergence between Eastern and Western Mediterranean Indo-European languages

there is no celto-liguri unless fabricated

False.

The Port of Monoecus affords a mooring-place for no large ships, nor yet for a considerable number; and it has a temple of Heracles "Monoecus," as he is called; and it is reasonable to conjecture from the name that the coastal voyages of the Massiliotes reach even as far as the Port of Monoecus. The distance from the Port of Monoecus to Antipolis is a little more than two hundred stadia. As for the stretch of country which begins at Antipolis and extends as far as Massilia or a little farther, the tribe of the Sallyes inhabits the Alps that lie above the seaboard and also — promiscuously with the Greeks — certain parts of the same seaboard. But though the early writers of the Greeks call the Sallyes "Ligues," and the country which the Massiliotes hold, "Ligustica," later writers name them "Celtoligures," and attach to their territory all the level country as far as Luerio and the Rhodanus, the country from which the inhabitants, divided into ten parts, used to send forth an army, not only of infantry, but of cavalry as well. These were the first of the Transalpine Celti that the Romans conquered, though they did so only after carrying on war with both them and the Ligures for a long time — because the latter had barred all the passes leading to Iberia that ran through the seaboard. - Strabo Geografica Book IV Chapter 6

They were a group of celticized ligures which lived between the Luberon and the Durance river and they were considered separate from the group of Ligures found within Italy.
 
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I am:

68.6 Proto-Villanovan

16.1 Bell Beaker Germany Bavaria

15.3 Italy CA Grotta Continenza @0.0238%

How do I compare to Etruscans and Picenes?
 
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It is obvious from what you write that you did not grow up in Italy. Do you even speak advanced Italian? Do you read Italian newspapers? Is your knowledge about Italy based only on bloggers like Racial Reality? It is true that the roots of those theories are those of Nordicism's, but these of whom you speak, who push to ethnographically lump northern Italians with the more northerly gauls/germanics, are a small minority, overrepresented in the forums, and by the way they do not seem to me now even very active even in the forums, but that in real life in Italy you can hardly meet them.
As someone born and bred in Northern Italy I can confirm that. Certain ridiculous attitudes (“celtism” in particular seems quite popular) seem to be widespread on these forums among a few modern nationalities that you world hardly describe as Celtic, but sure not among Italians. If anything I can’t help noticing the opposite on many occasions.
 
I've never stated that any Italians are descended from Illyrians, nor do I "hate Celts". What I said is that Italics and Illyrians likely shared a set of ancestors from a common population in the bronze age and that the northern Italians of the Iron age were not Celts. You cannot even repeat my claim without falsifying or misconstruing it and yet you claim to have no agenda. I'm finding this aspect particularly dishonest. As I've said countless times you are free to keep to your ideas about Italy's ethnography whether you agree with me or not. You're even free to make up lies about my beliefs and background like you presently choose to if you really care so much about me.

I agree entirely that the rejection of Nordicism does not in fact justify anti-Germanic or anti-Celtic attitudes.

It is interesting you are willing to assume so much about my life and my viewpoints. Some of the closest people to myself are of German and Celtic origin. I have a great deal of respect for these individuals and their respective ethnic backgrounds, ancient or otherwise. My dislike relates to those who think Italy's history along with the accomplishments of ethnic Italians are somehow owed to significant genetic input from Germans, Gauls, Syrians, or North Africans. This not only genetically did not occur, but more fundamentally is a form of ethnic slander. The only foreign ethnic group in the historic age that has had a quantifiably notable impact on Italy is that of the Greeks and yet still I've been more than happy to acknowledge the genetic links between Italy and the Greek world. I guess according to some this makes me some sort of "fanatic". It's really quite a sad state of affairs that acknowledging the probable IA continuity within the autosomal structure of modern northern Italy is seen as a form of extremism or having an agenda. I am not going to apologize for making this claim. If the data later proves me wrong then so be it, but the trajectory of current evidence between the norms of Illyria and the Picenes is not looking like it as things stand.


Posing the question of a Celtic presence in northern Italy as merely the result of a Nordicist agenda makes it a hardly serene issue. If it is true, as I have already said, that in the forums some Nordicist weirdoes and Celtic fanatics are there, even among Italians, and not only among Italians, this accusation becomes hardly applicable to all archaeologists and scholars. Some nutheads are there even among academic scholars, let's be clear. But it is unfair to accuse of being Nordicists archaeologists who think that the Golasecca Culture, and even the Ligurians, were Celts or Celtized.

I prefer to read archaeological studies in Italian rather than newspapers, yet even those such as Cavazzuti's work are deemed offensive to your senses. It's beginning to look like your only qualifier of "lacking an agenda" are those who perfectly agree with your opinions. The current Italian researchers who are doing this kind of work by mapping the DNA of the Piceni and the material culture of Terramare seem to not be good enough for you when they're discussed so perhaps they too hate Celts and think we all come from Illyrians or whatever fantasy you've constructed.

I have no problem with Cavazzutti's studies. I am well aware that Cavazzutti and the other archaeologists working with him are motivated by a sincere spirit of scientific research. I do have a problem with those who interpret them contrary to the archaeogenetic data published so far, according to which people bearing the Steppe ancestral component arrived in Italy long before 1700 B.C., and deny a role of the Bell Beaker in Italy. Later migrations during the 2nd millennium B.C. is of course plausible, but unlikely in a context that was fully uninhabited.


They were far closer to the truth of this question than any modern era linguist drawing ethnological guesses from small fragments of writing. They lived in a time and space in which this information was directly accessible and easily obtainable. Livy was quite literally born in Padua and very likely of Venetic descent. He grew up in Northern Italy and was derided for his localized Paduan grasp of Latin which was expressed in his writings. Polybius, while not Italian, was a hostage in Rome and travelled to northern Italy to write his history using first hand accounts of what he saw and found.

There is zero reason whatsoever that we should not draw from both of these individuals as a primary source over that of the linguistic guesswork - especially coming from someone who claims that their main interest is in ancient history. It does not get more direct than this.

This is a widely held belief among amateur scholars. Unacceptable in academia. Even the most credible of ancient authors must always be compared with what are the findings of modern studies.
 
But it is unfair to accuse of being Nordicists archaeologists who think that the Golasecca Culture, and even the Ligurians, were Celts or Celtized.
Also, to me there's very little of "Nordicist" thinking IA Southern French or IA North Italians that might have been Celts or proto-Celts. The image of tall prehistoric barbarians coming from icy steppes sweeping across Europe with their chariots, like the Yamnaya, fits the bill way more - speaking of Nordicist imagery - than people whose phenotype had to be quite similar to their non-Gallic neighbours.

Now, thinking of Germanics or the British Celts would be another story of course.
 
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Also, to me there's very little of "Nordicist" thinking IA Southern French or IA North Italians that might have been Celts or proto-Celts. The image of tall prehistoric barbarians coming from icy steppes sweeping across Europe with their chariots, like the Yamnaya, fits the bill way more - speaking of Nordicist imagery - than people whose phenotype had to be quite similar to their non-Gallic neighbours.

Now, thinking of Germanics or the British Celts would be another story of course.
The Yamnaya people were predominantly brunette in hair, eye and skin tone.
 
Posing the question of a Celtic presence in northern Italy as merely the result of a Nordicist agenda makes it a hardly serene issue. If it is true, as I have already said, that in the forums some Nordicist weirdoes and Celtic fanatics are there, even among Italians, and not only among Italians, this accusation becomes hardly applicable to all archaeologists and scholars. Some nutheads are there even among academic scholars, let's be clear. But it is unfair to accuse of being Nordicists archaeologists who think that the Golasecca Culture, and even the Ligurians, were Celts or Celtized.

It's never been about the presence of Celts in northern Italy. Nobody debates that Celts existed in Northern Italy during ancient times. The proposal has been the claim in which Lepontic speakers descended from the well evidenced indigenous Golasecca culture were supposedly ethnic Celts based off fragmentary language reconstructions. This theory is poorly evidenced and materially it's been shown that Golasecca draws rather heavily from Etruscan, Venetic, and broader Panalpine material influences.

I have no problem with Cavazzutti's studies. I am well aware that Cavazzutti and the other archaeologists working with him are motivated by a sincere spirit of scientific research. I do have a problem with those who interpret them contrary to the archaeogenetic data published so far, according to which people bearing the Steppe ancestral component arrived in Italy long before 1700 B.C., and deny a role of the Bell Beaker in Italy. Later migrations during the 2nd millennium B.C. is of course plausible, but unlikely in a context that was fully uninhabited.

And again nobody here is denying Bell Beaker influence. What Cavazzutti's research showed is that the prior inhabitants previous to the Terramare phenomenon were demographically much less significant. Materially speaking they were either displaced or absorbed by a clearly much more numerous people from a very large migration.

This is a widely held belief among amateur scholars. Unacceptable in academia. Even the most credible of ancient authors must always be compared with what are the findings of modern studies.

Sorry, there is no rule in academia saying that drawing from primary sources is unacceptable. The academic world is not some sort of uniform monolith that proclaims any such idea. Quite the contrary really, in that primary sources are typically a treasure trove of the most direct information one will find on a topic and should be taken quite seriously (although not without scrutiny).

The idea that we should ignore primary sources commenting directly on the topic of ethnicity in favor of linguistic guesswork on fragmented text language reconstructions as a proxy for ethnography an absurd position to take. If we were given a clearly fictitious or fantastical mythological founding of Po Valley's population to draw from from Livy or Polybius I would agree with you, but that is not the case. Etruscan material culture influence was rather strong in all of Northern Italy and this includes the Lepontic speaking regions covered by the Golasecca culture. This notion of Etruscan influence is part of current and modern academic findings which does agree what the ancient authors are stating. There is no justifiable reason to disqualify Etruscan or Etruscan related ethnography here, where as Celtic origin is much less likely given what we already know about the Celtic genetic structure which is more distant from modern Northern Italy than that of the Etruscans and certainly than that of the Picenes. If we see an IA genetic structure whose average clearly and broadly over many samples coincides with the Transalpine Gauls in Po Valley I would concede that I was wrong but I have extreme doubts we will find anything like this.

Deductively speaking it is currently looking very difficult to contradict longstanding Iron age continuity in Northern Italy. I can't say if it will be total continuity or if there will be some minor influence from central and southern Italy during the Roman era, but it's becoming clear at this point that the majority of Po Valley's genetic structure is an iron age holdover that is no longer similar to anywhere else in Europe. Scenarios which could supplement mass IA continuity are quickly dwindling to zero with every new study that comes out. I distinctly recall individuals who believed with absolute certainty that imperial northern Italy would be no different than imperial latium until it was later repopulated by Germanics and yet now we have the Felsina Imperial average to draw from which flatly contradicts any such idea. How much longer until our genetic data also contradicts the assumption of the supposed Lepontic Celticity which was not even based off preexisting genetic data in the first place? Only time will tell, but I'm not betting on an IA northern Italy whose population norms resembles any part of IA France.
 
If we see an IA genetic structure whose average clearly and broadly over many samples coincides with the Transalpine Gauls in Po Valley I would concede that I was wrong but I have extreme doubts we will find anything like this.
Again Vitruvius, sorry but I don't see why the IA Northern Italian genetic structure should match exactly that of the Transalpine Gauls (i.e. French).

However to me it could make some amount of sense that what we will see, if are ever presented with Lepontic, Ligurian, Orobian or even Raeto-Camunic genetic material, is that such DNA evidences will be quite close to those of Southeastern French Gauls (or Celto-Ligurians, call them as you prefer), naturally closer than that of the Piceni and the Central Italian Etruscans.

The IA North Italian genetic norm could be somewhere in between an "Illyrian" and "Southern Gallic" continuum, couldn't it? Closer to one extreme or the other as you move from east to west. I see no reason why such norm should look exactly like the Transalpine Gauls though.
 
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The IA North Italian genetic norm could be somewhere in between an "Illyrian" and "Southern Gallic" continuum, couldn't it? Closer to one extreme or the other as you move from east to west. I see no reason why such norm should look exactly like the Transalpine Gauls though.
I think this is an important point.

However the low WHG in modern Northern Italy (even more further south) compared to any part of France cannot be ignored.
 
To me it looks like the question of Indo-European origin has been largely politicized, i see different waves and it is quite problematic whom to believe.

Unfortunately this has been masked in so called "scientific papers".

I still think Steppe origin and ultimately Y-DNA R1b/R1a is the origin of this language family, with consequently each separate group adding new Y-DNA to their ranks. On grand scale the diffusion of these Y-DNA and the spread of the languages match and cuts like a hot knife in a butter.
 
I think this is an important point.

However the low WHG in modern Northern Italy (even more further south) compared to any part of France cannot be ignored.
I'm referring to IA Northern Italian peoples here, and to the IA French peoples immediately adjacent to, or reasonably near, the modern borders of Italy. The Provencal samples I'm aware of come from quite a few hundreds kilometers west of Italy.

As to modern Northern Italians, again, I don't see why they should have exactly the same components in the exact same ratio as the French. Where does this expectation comes from?

The French are the French. I'm not an expert on ratios of the various components but I suppose that any other country bordering France has (and had) their own peculiar ratios too, otherwise they would all overlap on PCA plots.
 
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Again Vitruvius, sorry but I don't see why the IA Northern Italian genetic structure should match exactly that of the Transalpine Gauls (i.e. French).

If the origin of lepontic speakers is truly celtic as some linguists such as Lejuene have proposed then they should match their origin in Transalpine Gaul. If not then this will not be the case. You cannot have a celtic origin which has no commonality with the genetics of any other Gauls - such a genetic result demands that the genetic origin lie in a place other than that of the Celts.

However to me it could make some amount of sense that what we will see, if are ever presented with Lepontic, Ligurian, Orobian or even Raeto-Camunic genetic material, is that such DNA evidences will be quite close to those of Southeastern French Gauls (or Celto-Ligurians, call them as you prefer), naturally closer than that of the Piceni and the Central Italian Etruscans.

The IA North Italian genetic norm could be somewhere in between an "Illyrian" and "Southern Gallic" continuum, couldn't it? Closer to one extreme or the other as you move from east to west. I see no reason why such norm should look exactly like the Transalpine Gauls though.

I disagree and see this as improbable other than for specifically 4th century transalpine invaders. If we see a spectrum of Illyrian and Southern Gallic like DNA between east to west it would also necessitate that there was some unspoken mass expulsion or colonization event that affected the native tribes of only northwest Italy but not northeast. Not only is this not documented but the very idea of it seems very unlikely to me. Populations like the Insubres and Ligures were not expelled with the proper transalpine populations. Furthermore, we already have a good EMA sample from Bardonecchia and Torino which both average extraordinarily modern like results in comparison to anything French/Gallic. As memory serves there was precisely one outlier in both sample sets that could be construed as potentially French, with one or two that could be construed as southern or central Italian, with the rest looking stereotypically modern for the area.
 
If the origin of lepontic speakers is truly celtic as some linguists such as Lejuene have proposed then they should match their origin in Transalpine Gaul. If not then this will not be the case. You cannot have a celtic origin which has no commonality with the genetics of any other Gauls - such a genetic result demands that the genetic origin lie in a place other than that of the Celts.
I don't know if the Lepontics were Celts or not, I don't have a stake in that. But if they were, why couldn't they show any genetic difference at all with the Transalpine Gauls? I assume that the Celts were not a genetic monolith.

If we see a spectrum of Illyrian and Southern Gallic like DNA between east to west it would also necessitate that there was some unspoken mass expulsion or colonization event that affected the native tribes of only northwest Italy but not northeast.
Are you referring to the modern Northern Italians here? Maybe genetic contributions from the peninsula over the centuries have shifted the whole North towards the "Illyrian" rather than "Southern Gallic" norm?
 
Both are R1b heavy but of different subclades Italo-Celtic R1b-L51 and Greco-Armenian R1b-Z2103. This study has the first R1b-Z2103 from Bronze Age Greece.

I am quite surprised that language switch to Indo-European in Bronze Age Greece came from these few R1bs.

By the way, I just noticed also a J2b-L283. This further proves this haplogroups link to Yamnaya.
I recall discussing this same topic when the southern arc paper dropped 2+ years ago. I always found the idea that a limited amount of IE steppe speakers eventually caused the whole of BA Greece to switch language, perfectly plausible. Why?

It was a slow, gradual shift. We know that the first proto-Greek speakers arrived in the area roughly around 2200-2300BC. Prior to that point everybody was speaking pre-Greek languages. The last bastion of these languages were the Minoans in Crete whose state persisted until 1450BC or thereabouts. That’s a period of 750-850 years, a long long time. 800 years ago Genghis Khan was still alive. Greece isn’t exactly a big place.

In terms of archaeological findings, the most prominent pre-Greek cultural centers are insular, centered around Cyclades and Crete. Without a shadow of doubt the most important political entity of that type q was centered in Crete. It stands to reason that mainland pre-Greeks were less centralized, perhaps very fragmented politically too. Yamnaya made foothold up north, around river Haliacmon and probably incorporated the decentralized locals they came in contact with, to their numbers. At least this is what we can gather from the Logkas girls, haven’t looked at the new samples yet.

These people acted as a proto-Greek speaking population tank of sorts and tribes of them started to descend further south, replicating the same process that took place up north. By 1700 they have been everywhere in mainland Greece, we have Mycenaean tombs all the way to Messinia in the extreme south west. At that point all it takes is for a bunch of settlements to become more prominent and prestigious for the countryside people to switch language through trade, mixing etc. The settlements became cities, usually fortified with a palace. And eventually these people created a navy and invaded Crete as well. All Greece was finally Greek speaking and then they moved to Cyprus too.

The fact that Greece is largely a harsh, mountainous, fragmented land with several islands off the coast, means that there will be a lot of isolated communities. And you can’t do blitzkrieg, kill the men and take their women, chariots are basically useless in this terrain. That’s the main reason modern Greeks have such a big ydna diversity. After the arrival of the Anatolian farmers there were no more population replacement. Newcomers would just add their numbers to what was already there.
 
I don't know if the Lepontics were Celts or not, I don't have a stake in that. But if they were, why couldn't they show any genetic difference at all with the Transalpine Gauls? I assume that the Celts were not a genetic monolith.

I see no reason why they should show any large differences to that of the Transalpine Gauls if they are in fact Celtic. The position you're referring to is one in which the genetic structure and origin of Lepontic speakers necessarily comes from migrations that occurred through Transalpine Gaul or other IA Celtic regions such as Germany, Switzerland or Austria. If one wishes to hold this position then one has to assume significant overlap or at least majority influence from said Transalpine populations. Even combining IA Celtic populations with further Northern Italian Neolithic input would not yield a modern Northern italian/IA Picene/EMA bardonecchia like result, but instead push you towards the modern Spaniard region of the west eurasian PCA. Ironically the populations that occupy this genetic structure in Italy were Etruscans and Latins, who we all know were not Celts, despite bearing what is looking to be a bell beaker origin.

Are you referring to the modern Northern Italians here? Maybe genetic contributions from the peninsula over the centuries have shifted the whole North towards the "Illyrian" rather than "Southern Gallic" norm?

I'm referring to ancient Northern Italians. Keeping Bardonecchia/Torino EMA in mind, any such genetic contributions within your scenario would've specifically had to have occurred in the Roman era which is not necessarily impossible but something I find doubtful - similar to the idea that Northern Italy was mass replaced by Roman era Balkan migrants. These ideas are basically historically undocumented speculation with little to support them right now.
 
I see no reason why they should show any large differences to that of the Transalpine Gauls if they are in fact Celtic. The position you're referring to is one in which the genetic structure and origin of Lepontic speakers necessarily comes from migrations that occurred through Transalpine Gaul or other IA Celtic regions such as Germany, Switzerland or Austria. If one wishes to hold this position then one has to assume significant overlap or at least majority influence from said Transalpine populations. Even combining IA Celtic populations with further Northern Italian Neolithic input would not yield a modern Northern italian/IA Picene/EMA bardonecchia like result, but instead push you towards the modern Spaniard region of the west eurasian PCA. Ironically the populations that occupy this genetic structure in Italy were Etruscans and Latins, who we all know were not Celts, despite bearing what is looking to be a bell beaker origin.
Noted. But one theory I had read about the Lepontics was that they were proto-Celtic, hence in a sense it was Transalpine Gauls (at least the ones more distant from their original heimat in the Alps) that came from the Lepontics in the first place, at least in a cultural sense (since such a geographically widespread culture as the Celtic one cannot possibly correspond to a genetic unity).

Also since you mention the modern Spaniards, do for example aDNA results of Celtiberians match that of Transalpine and German/Austrian Gauls too?
 
Also, to me there's very little of "Nordicist" thinking IA Southern French or IA North Italians that might have been Celts or proto-Celts. The image of tall prehistoric barbarians coming from icy steppes sweeping across Europe with their chariots, like the Yamnaya, fits the bill way more - speaking of Nordicist imagery - than people whose phenotype had to be quite similar to their non-Gallic neighbours.

Now, thinking of Germanics or the British Celts would be another story of course.

As for the Nordicism prevalent in the forums, there are also those who think that the ancient Greeks were all tall, blond, and came from the Baltic Sea. Just to give an example. Of course, no importance should be given to this kind of Nordicism.

As for northern Italy, to be clear no archaeologist claims that all of Iron Age northern Italy was Celtic or proto-Celtic, and that it was aligned with Iron Age France. I am going by memory, while there are archeologists like Cavazzutti who supports that around 1700-1500 B.C. some areas of northern-eastern Italy, mainly the terramaricola area of Emilia and the castellieri of Friuli, have parallels in the Carpathian-Danubian plains of modern-day Hungary, as South-eastern Lombardy (Mantua) have parallels with the Gáta-Wieselburg of Eastern Austria and Western Hungary (areas that later in the Iron Age would be inhabited mainly by Etruscans and Veneti), and there are probably other examples here that I don't remember now, other archaeologists argue that northwestern Italy (Piedmont, Liguria, western Lombardy) is characterized instead by other archaeological horizons, and this coincides with the area of greatest Celtic influence in northern Italy: the Golasecca culture and the areas inhabited by the ancient Ligurians. Moreover, in a portion of this area since the 6th century B.C., the Lepontic language has been attested, which is considered the oldest attested Celtic language, and about which there are two hypotheses: a distinct Continental Celtic language or a language part of the Gallic subgroup. As far as I know, today consensus among scholars is still that Lepontic is a distinct Continental Celtic language, and that the inscriptions in Gallic are the more recent ones.

The Celts were in the Iron Age, the population covering the largest amount of territory in Western and Central Europe, and so it is fair to ask: from a biological point of view, were they all the same? Are there any genetic differences, for example, between the Alpine Celts and the Celts of the British Isles? To define someone a Celt had to belong to a well-defined genetic profile? When you talk to archaeologists and anthropologists they say that the biological aspect is just one of many along with the cultural, linguistic, archaeological aspects.

To date we have no archaeogenetics data on Iron Age populations in northwestern Italy. We can only speculate on the basis of the modern population, but these are conjectures, not objective data. Some archaeologists consider the term Ligurians in ancient sources a kind of broad term like so many others in ancient sources (Tyrrhenians, Pelasgians...). Possible that the ancient Ligurians were the oldest stratum in northwestern Italy, and that northwestern Italy received migrations of peoples we can call proto-Celtic. What genetic profile could those who wrote in the Lepontic language in the Iron Age have had? Here again we can only speculate. The chances are that they had, somewhat as in the case of Celto-Iberians, a genetic profile more typical of southwestern Europe rather than of central Europe (and somewhat like the Etruscans), perhaps with a significant number of outliers with greater Steppe percentages (somewhat like the outliers considered Celtic found among the Etruscans).

So, could they have been considered Celtic even if it had a more southern European genetic profile? I don't have any answer here, but if some scholar, with arguments that I find credible, considered them as such, a kind of Southern European expression of the Celtic world, I would have no problem accepting it. Also because ancient history is certainly not the ethnic estimates of some genetic calculator, and I continue to be more interested in ancient history over modern identity issues based on DNA testing. Besides, many modern ethnic groups have a genetic cline, not only the Italians, but also the Germans, the Greeks themselves and so on, yet no one would dream of claiming that they do not belong to the same ethnic group because of a genetic variability in the population.


To me it looks like the question of Indo-European origin has been largely politicized, i see different waves and it is quite problematic whom to believe.

This is quite evident, the question of Indo-European origin arose in the 1800s on obviously nationalistic grounds, and in fact among modern Indo-European linguists you still find some who suffer from this approach. In Germany you still find in some university departments of linguistics the label "Indo-Germanistics" (Indogermanistik), which is just laughable in my opinion.


I think this is an important point.

However the low WHG in modern Northern Italy (even more further south) compared to any part of France cannot be ignored.

Undeniable this. But this, however, remains an important point if you are interested more in modern over the Iron Age populations.
 
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The chances are that they had, somewhat as in the case of Celto-Iberians, a genetic profile more typical of southwestern Europe rather than of central Europe (and somewhat like the Etruscans), perhaps with a significant number of outliers with greater Steppe percentages (somewhat like the outliers considered Celtic found among the Etruscans).
That is the example I had in mind, nothing "nordic" about them and yet part of the "Celtic" world because their culture, though mixed with important local elements (as would be the case with the Lepontics, assuming they were Celts or proto-Celts), belongs to the Celtic koine.
 
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