Y-DNA of Iberians or descendants of recent Iberians

@Kirgonix Pereira

There is an another Iberian user (AlfonsoVIII), he is a Spanish friend from Castilla-La Mancha:

Y-DNA: R1b-A8053 > FGC37100
 
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Recently confirmed that my line indeed goes back to Central Portugal, specifically to the village of Avelar, in Leiria. I do think, however, that they settled there coming from Northern Portugal as the samples of my branch on FTDNA seem to be focused there and also on Galicia (it was an empty place until Afonso Henriques got Christian settlers there on his reign, so it checks up).
Thus, it seems that the Iberians on the branch are more tied to Galician-Portuguese speakers than anything else. Still no clue on how they ended there, though.
 
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Aemilius said:
... it seems that the Iberians on the branch are more tied to Galician-Portuguese speakers than anything else. Still no clue on how they ended there, though.
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The probability of this being true is very high, it is true that currently the Iberians have influences mainly from northern Iberia.
 
My direct paternal line is Northern Aragonese, and my haplogroup is R-M153 in case that you want to add me 😁
 
I don't have much knowledge on Ancient Iberians, and i didn't look at material culture and archaeology but am i correct to assume there was a Bell-Beaker expansion and R1b spread in Iberia during Early Bronze Age, also coupled by some Celtic intrusion during Urnfield-Hallstatt period LBA-EIA-MIA (Vettones come to mind, the people from which Romans borrowed the idea of notorious gladius sword).

Now, my question is, how come Iberians are considered non IE if they were supposedly overwhelmly R1b/Bell-Beaker one of the most distinguishable markers of IE expansions.

Were Iberians or Iberian language somehow related to Basque (also high in R1b)? Or, was it just a scenario where R1b/Bell-Beaker male lineages expanded but they adopted the language of Chalcolithic Iberians (EEF or WHG derived)?

Etruscans in Italy were another surprise with high R1b. But, there was G2a present among them and i might think the forming of Etruscans might have been of different nature where G2a Proto-Etruscans assimilated Proto-Italic R1b to form EIA and Classical Etruscans.
 
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Hawk said:
I don't have much knowledge on Ancient Iberians, and i didn't look at material culture and archaeology but am i correct to assume there was a Bell-Beaker expansion and R1b spread in Iberia during Early Bronze Age, also coupled by some Celtic intrusion during Urnfield-Hallstatt period LBA-EIA-MIA (Vettones come to mind, the people from which Romans borrowed the idea of notorious gladius sword).

Now, my question is, how come Iberians are considered non IE if they were supposedly overwhelmly R1b/Bell-Beaker one of the most distinguishable markers of IE expansions.

Were Iberians or Iberian language somehow related to Basque (also high in R1b)? Or, was it just a scenario where R1b/Bell-Beaker male lineages expanded but they adopted the language of Chalcolithic Iberians (EEF or WHG derived)?

Etruscans in Italy were another surprise with high R1b. But, there was G2a present among them and i might think the forming of Etruscans might have been of different nature where G2a Proto-Etruscans assimilated Proto-Italic R1b to form EIA and Classical Etruscans.
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Iberos (iberians) were considered non Indo European mainly because of their language which was closely related with ancient Aquitanian (another pre indo european language) and because of some cultural aspects that has remained unchanged. Autosomically speaking Iberos weren't exactly high on Yamnaya and Bell Beaker derived ancestry but seems that the found effect of the haplgroup R1b in Iberia has really affected them, the same can be said for Paleo Balearic people (i have some studies about them saved : ) ) Which all their samples were R1b-P312 (Bell Beaker derived i guess) And still like the Iberos autosomically they weren't high on Yamnaya derived ancestry
 
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