Johane Derite
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This is a linguistically meaningless statement.Not a good argument, because the toponym evolved under late Latin influence, therefore -ës reflects it. Viminacium or any other similar toponym ending in -ac(h)ium in the late Roman Balkans would have the ending -ës or -as in Albanian.
Durrëq could be plausible only if the toponym evolved under Greek influence which it didn't or if Latin influence stopped completely in 200 AD and it didn't stop.
If albanians had been in this region before the romans then the toponym Dyrrachium would be in their lexicon, and therefore the /ki/ in dyrrakio- would become /q/ as it became so in Albanian. keq, a pre latin word.
If "latin influence" was supposedly the cause of /ki/ becoming /s/ in Albanian "durrës" it wouldn't only influence the toponym of Durres but every single other instance of /ki/ so we would instead hav "Kes" instead of Keq, fase instead of faqe, etc..
The fact it only appears in Durrës shows proto-Albanians learnt this toponym from Latin spearkers that called it Durratso.
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