Yes I know about Askenazi and Chazars etc., of course. It seems just strange to me that J1 has ZERO throughout european population, because for a long historic period before that, Jews were NOT converts. But they traveled in Europe as well, and founded settlements as well etc., so it SHOULD be their origin haplogroup (I expected semitic) presented here. But it could be simply explained but existence of a bit older haplogroup G in this old jewish population, as you wrote before. It is logical then.
And the rest is exactly what I am speaking about - this is all the time the same influence from the same part of the world, by the same people (not the same haplogroup of course, because it is a matter of change by crossing others). Arjas, Celts, Huns, even Germans, it seems logical that Jews, I just would like to know more about this specific jewish matter. Every strong european culture is "asian", from that part of the world. But, it doesn´t stays the same in europian conditions (or hindu-indian in case of India). Which is obvious, because people STOP here. It kills culture, when you are NOT NOMAD. Not so much in about Jews - they traveled around more than the others, it means - they really changed their places to live (don´t confuse it with "traveling" nowadays, or moving out (to america, f.e.) which doesn´t expect from people the same). This is then one of real advantage of Jews, of course.