Fire Haired14
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- Y-DNA haplogroup
- R1b DF27*
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- U5b2a2b1
If "West European" and "East European" are defined by contemporary people and assuming that both categories are essentially descendants of the same old WHG, then it is impossible that there once was a heavily ancient "West European" population. The older a sample, the more evenenly his WHG will be divided in "West European" and "East European", because WE and EE are the result of recent differentiation due to geographic separation. The iron age sample is closer to Loschbour in terms of time scale and Loschbour is about equally East and West. Therefore I think it is generally impossible to find any ancient sample with such high "West European" percentage like contemporary west Europeans.
EDIT: Maybe the same reasoning can also explain the general tendency towards exotic admixtures in ancient samples (which is incomplete differentiation)!?
Why there is a west-east differentiation in admixtures is up to debate. It certainly isn't as simple as geography, and recent splits. Don't take admixture results to literally. Components aren't ancient populations they're just just clusters. If I was made into a component compared to east Asian components, you would probably score 100% in it, that doesn't mean I'm and ancient population and you're 100% me. Ancient samples of good quality don't score in exotic components. Have you seen updated Eurogenes K13-15 results for Loschbour, Stuttgart, Motala-12, La Brana-1, and Otzi? They literally score 0 in just about every non-west Eurasian components. The hunter gatherers don't score 0 in Mediterranean and near eastern components. Don't take HGs scores in regional clusters too seriously either, but do take note of them.