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Etymology of Celtic Brigantes, Germanic Burgundī and Iranian Berezaiti (without mentioning Bergand in Iran): https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Brigantes "The name Brigantes (Βρίγαντες in Ancient Greek) shares the same Proto-Celtic root as the goddess Brigantia, *brigantī, brigant- meaning 'high...

Goídel Glas: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Go%C3%ADdel_Glas "In medieval Irish and Scottish legend, Goídel Glas (Old Irish: [ˈɡoːi̯ðʲel ɡlas]; Latinised as Gaithelus) is the creator of the Goidelic languages and eponymous ancestor of the Gaels. The narrative in the Lebor Gabála Érenn is a...

Name of Brazil: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Name_of_Brazil About Brasil: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Brasil_(mythical_island) Compare the ancient Gilaki land of Barezil in the southwest of Caspian sea: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Barezil

If there were just one similar name, it could be certainly coincidental but almost all known people in the south of Caspian sea have Celtic names: 1. Gilak people in Gilan province: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gilaks They were mentioned as Gaeli by Pliny: https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Gaeli...

The main problem is that it is generally believed that Iran was just the land of Elamites and Iranian-speaking people but this country was actually the land of Indo-Europeans. For example we know Geneva in Switzerland and Genoa/Genova in Italy has the same Indo-European origin...

For example read it: Problems of Linear Elamite by Walter Hinz: https://www.jstor.org/stable/25203649 About 50 years ago Walther Hinz thought we should read Elamite Nahiti "sun" in the inscription of Silver cup from Marvdasht but Francois Desset reads Indo-Iranian Shuwar "sun"...

It really doesn't matter what they say because Linear Elamite inscriptions have been read and we already know that Indo-Iranians definitely lived in the south of Iran in the 3rd millennium BC, several centuries before the formation of Andronovo and Sintashta cultures.

It really doesn't matter what they say because Linear Elamite inscriptions have been read and we already know that Indo-Iranians definitely lived in the south of Iran in the 3rd millennium BC, several centuries before the formation of Andronovo and Sintashta cultures. The great book of Dr...

R1a came to South Asia by Hephthalites about 1500 years and it has nothing to do with Indo-Iranians. Ad you read here: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hephthalites Pashtuns are the descendants of Hephthalites and for this reason they have a large amount of R1a.

All ancient Persian and Parthian samples are J.

https://adnaera.com/2024/12/08/origins-and-spread-of-indo-european-languages-an-alternative-view/

Phonologically, the closest language to PIE is Kurdish, not Armenian, however Kurdish is an Iranian language but Kurdish phonology is neither similar to Iranian, nor Indo-Iranian but PIE phonology, for example we know labialized voiced velar plosive (gʷ) exists in PIE and Kurdish but it didn't...

I think it probably relates the earliest mention to Armenian people/land, Armenians call their country Hayastan, as you read here: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hayasa-Azzi Some scholars believe that Armenians were native to the Hayasa region in the Armenian Highlands in the 2nd millennium BC...

As Kozintsev says in "Proto-Indo-Europeans: The Prologue" (https://pure.spbu.ru/ws/files/53198823/Proto_Indo_Europeans_The_prologue_2019_.pdf): Should one conclude that migrants from the south, who evidently introduced pastoralism to the region, adopted the language of the local foragers en masse?

Because it says "Another well-documented post-Neolithic event was the onset of a population movement from the Caucasus into the steppe, which ultimately genetically contributed to the formation of Yamnaya ancestry.7,8,9 ".

https://www.cell.com/ajhg/fulltext/S0002-9297(24)00391-4

The main point is that "Who were the first Italic speakers?" We know Italic, Celtic, and Germanic were direct descendants of proto-IE language but Iranian and Slavic were from Indo-Iranian and Balto-Slavic sub branches, so the first Italic speakers should be close to proto-IE people.

Who were the first Italic speakers? You usually say a very low level but for example we read about ancient Pompeii samples: "The largest proportion of ancestry is accounted for by the combination of components derived from Neolithic farmers from Iran (IRN_Ganj-Dareh_N) and Anatolia Neolithic...

Etruscans as a non-Indo-European people were mainly r1b but almost all ancient Indo-European samples, such as Mycenaeans and Anatolians were J2, Italic people were the same J2.